MCQ of Biotechnology Principles and Processes

/ Biotechnology and its Applications / By

Q1. Which of the following technology comes under classical / traditional biotechnology?

  1. Making curd
  2. Making bread
  3. Making wine
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q2. Which of the following technology does not come under modern biotechnology?

  1. In-vitro fertilization
  2. Developing a DNA vaccine
  3. Corrective a defective gene
  4. Making wine

Ans: 4

Q3. The EFB stands for:

  1. The European Federation of Biotechnology
  2. The European Forum of Biotechnology
  3. The European Foundation of Biotechnology
  4. The European Funds of Biotechnology

Ans: 1

The EFB is located in Spain.

Q4. Which of the following comes under modern biotechnology?

  1. Genetic manipulation
  2. Recombinant DNA technology
  3. Genetic engineering
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q5. Which of the following are the core techniques that gave birth to the modern biotechnology?

  1. Genetic engineering
  2. Bioprocess engineering
  3. Both a and b
  4. Mechanical engineering

Ans: 3

Q6. Which of the following processes could bring genetic variation among organisms?

  1. Asexual reproduction
  2. Sexual reproduction
  3. Hybridization
  4. Both b and c

Ans: 4

Q7. Genetic engineering involves:

  1. Creation of recombinant DNA
  2. Cloning of genes
  3. Gene transfer
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q8. In genetic engineering, the alien piece of DNA is integrated to which part of the DNA of the recipient organism?

  1. At any part of the recipient DNA
  2. At the end of the recipient DNA
  3. At a specific DNA sequence, called the origin of replication
  4. Alien DNA is only introduced into the recipient’s cell and never integrated

Ans: 3

Q9. Restriction nuclease enzyme can be obtained from:

  1. Viruses
  2. Bacteria
  3. Eukaryotes
  4. All of the above

Ans: 2

Q10. How many different classes of RE are present?

  1. Class I
  2. Class I, and Class II
  3. Class I, II and III
  4. Class I and IV

Ans: 3

Q11. Which of the following components are requires by Class II RE to function?

  1. Mg ions
  2. ATP
  3. Both a and b
  4. S-Adenosyl Methionine

Ans: c

Q12. The length of the recognition sequence of restriction endonuclease varies from:

  1. 2-6 bases
  2. 3-6 bases
  3. 4-6 bases
  4. 5-10 bases

Ans: 3

Q13. How many restriction enzymes have been isolated from bacteria?

  1. >900
  2. >1000
  3. >1200
  4. >1500

Ans: 1

Q14. Which of the following restriction enzyme was first discovered?

  1. Eco RI
  2. Hind II
  3. Sal I
  4. Bam HI

Ans: 2

Q15. Which of the following restriction endonucleases form sticky ends?

  1. Hind II
  2. Sal I
  3. Eco RI
  4. Both b and c

Ans: 4

Q16. Which of the following is not a tool for recombinant DNA technology?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Cloning vector
  3. Competent host
  4. None of the above

Ans: 4

Q17. Which of the following should be the features of a suitable vector?

  1. The vector must contain an origin of replication so that it is independently able to replicate within the host.
  2. The vector should incorporate a selectable marker, a gene whose product can identify the host cells containing the vector
  3. The vector must have one unique restriction enzyme recognition site which can be used for cutting and introducing an insert
  4. The vector should be small in size thereby facilitating entry / transfer into the host cell
  5. All of the above

Ans: 5

Q18. Which of the following is a plasmid based vector?

  1. pBR322
  2. pUC
  3. Yep
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q19. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the E.coli plasmid?

  1. E.coli plasmid contains ampicillin as selectable marker
  2. E.coli plasmid contains ampicilin and tetracycline as selectable markers
  3. E.coli plasmid contains chromaphenicol and kanamycin as selectable markers
  4. E.coli plasmids do not carry any selectable marker

Ans: 4

Q20. How many different types of restriction sites are present in pBR322?

  1. 8 different types
  2. 6 different types
  3. 4 different types
  4. 2 different types

Ans: 1

Q21. Bacteriophage lambda allows cloning of DNA fragments up to the size of:

  1. 23kb
  2. 10kb
  3. 27kb
  4. 30kboe

Ans: 1

Q22. M13 phage vector allows cloning of DNA fragments up to the size of:

  1. 23kb
  2. 27kb
  3. 29kb
  4. 10kb

Ans: 4

Q23. Arrange vectors on the basis of their insert DNA size capacity?

  1. Plasmid < bacteriophage lambda < cosmid < BAC < YAC
  2. Plasmid < cosmid < bacteriophage lambda < BAC < YAC
  3. Cosmid < plasmid < bacteriophage lambda < BAC < YAC
  4. Cosmid < plasmid < bacteriophage lambda < YAC < BAC

Ans: 1

Q24. Which of the following cloning vector contains a telomeric sequence, the centromere and an autonomously replicating sequence?

  1. Bacteriophase lambda
  2. M13
  3. Cosmid
  4. YAC

Ans: 4

Q25. Which of the following pair of cloning vectors can be used in the genome project?

  1. BAC, YAC
  2. BAC, cosmid
  3. Cosmid, plasmid
  4. Bacteriophage lambda, M13 phage

Ans: 1

Q26. Which of the following viral vector was used by Paul Berg involving mammalian cells?

  1. Simian virus SV40
  2. Tobacco mosaic virus
  3. Cauliflower mosaic virus
  4. Tobacco mosaic virus

Ans: 1

Q27. Which of the following cloning vector can be used for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

  1. Plasmid vector
  2. Bacteriophage vector
  3. YAC
  4. Shuttle vector

Ans: 4

Q28. Who is known as the father of biotechnology?

  1. Herbert Boyer
  2. Stanley Cohen
  3. Paul Berg
  4. None of the above

Ans: 3

Q29. Which of the following defines the meaning of insertional inactivation?

  1. A foreign DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of selectable marker to inactivate the gene
  2. A foreign DNA is inserted in the OriC region of the cloning vector to inactivate the gene
  3. A foreign DNA is inserted away from the selectable marker to inactive the gene
  4. Insertional inactivation is the process of inserting a foreign DNA in a cloning vector

Ans: 1

Q30. Which of the following statement is true for selectable marker?

  1. Selectable marker is a gene encoding resistance to antibiotics
  2. Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transfomants
  3. Selectable marker is the site for insertional inactivation
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q31. E.coli has become the most widely used organism in recombinant DNA technology because:

  1. The genetic makeup of E.coli has been extensively studied
  2. It is easy to handle and grow and can accept a range of vectors
  3. E.coli under optimal conditions divide every 20 minutes
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q32. For the expression of eukaryotic proteins, eukaryotic cells are often preferred because:

  1. To be functionally active, proteins require proper folding and post transcriptional modifications such as glycosylation, which is not possible in prokaryotic cells
  2. In prokaryotes,                 cloned eukaryotic genes containing introns cannot be processed
  3. Both a and b
  4. Eukaryotic genes are large in number and cannot be accommodated in prokaryotes

Ans: 3

Q33. Yeast cells have been used extensively for functional expression of eukaryotic genes because:

  1. Yeasts are the simplest eukaryotic organisms
  2. Yeast cells are easy to grow and manipulate
  3. Large amounts of cloned genes or recombinant proteins can be obtained from yeast cultures grown in fermentors
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q34. Which of the following characteristics of DNA is correct?

  1. DNA is hydrophilic in nature
  2. DNA is acidic in nature
  3. Both a and b
  4. DNA is hydrophobic and basic in nature

Ans: 3

Q35. Which of the following method is used to force bacteria to take up the plasmid?

  1. The bacterial cell is treated with divalent cation such as calcium ion, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall
  2. The cells are incubated with recombinant DNA on ice followed by placing them briefly at 42 degree Celsius and then putting them back on ice.
  3. Both a and b
  4. Only heat shock is given to bacterium to take up the recombinant DNA

Ans: 3

Q36. Which of the following is a vectorless gene transfer method?

  1. Microinjection
  2. Biolistics
  3. Electroporation
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q37. The scientist Chamberlain used a method in recombinant DNA technology to transfer recombinant DNA into the host cell of mice suffering from neuromuscular disorder. Which of the following gene transfer method he used for his experiment?

  1. Microinjection
  2. Biolistics
  3. Electroporation
  4. Heat shock treatment

Ans: 1

Q38. Which of the following method of gene transfer is used for transferring recombinant DNA into the oocyte, ovum, and embryonic cells?

  1. Transfection
  2. Microinjection
  3. Biolistics
  4. Heat shock treatment

Ans: 2

Q39. In chemical mediated gene transfer, which of the following chemical is used to transfer rDNA into the cell?

  1. PEG
  2. Calcium phosphate
  3. Cationic liposomes
  4. DEAE dextran
  5. All of the above

Ans: 5

Q40. Which of the following method uses gold or tungsten to transfer gene in plant cells?

  1. Microinjection
  2. Biolistics
  3. Electroporation
  4. Transfection

Ans: 2

Q41. What could be the source of genetic material to be used in the recombinant DNA technology?

  1. Plant cell
  2. Animal cell
  3. Bacterial cell
  4. Fungus cell
  5. All of the above

Ans: 5

Q42. For the isolation of DNA from an organism, which of the following steps are not required?

  1. The organism is treated with the desired enzyme to break the cell wall
  2. The homogenate isolated should be treated with carbohydrases, lipases, proteases, and RNAse
  3. The homogenate is treated with chilled ethanol along the wall slowly
  4. Chilled ethanol is required for the precipitation of DNA
  5. None of the above

Ans: 5

Q43. Which of the following chemical is used for the precipitation of DNA?

  1. Normal ethanol
  2. Chilled ethanol
  3. Cellulase
  4. Ribonuclease

Ans: 2

Q44. Which of the following option is incorrect for gel-electrophoresis?

  1. The negatively charged DNA molecules are forced to move from cathode to anode
  2. The negatively charged DNA molecules are forced to move from anode to cathode
  3. In gel-electrophoresis, the most commonly used matrix is agarose, which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds
  4. The smaller sized DNA moves farther compared to large sized DNA molecules
  5. None of the above

Ans: 2

Q45. Which of the following method is used to visualize the separated DNA fragments using electrolysis?

  1. The DNA fragment is first stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation
  2. The DNA fragment is first stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to IR radiation
  3. The DNA fragment is first stained with saffranin followed by exposure to UV radiation
  4. The DNA fragment is first stained with saffranin followed by exposure to IR radiation

Ans: 1

Q46. When DNA is stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation, it appears:

  1. Blue colored band
  2. Red colored band
  3. Violet colored band
  4. Bright orange colored band

Ans: 4

Q47. Which of the following statement defines the term elution?

  1. It is the process in which the separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece
  2. It is the process in which the separated DNA is stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation
  3. It is the process in which the separated DNA is joined with the vector DNA to construct recombinant DNA
  4. None of the above

Ans: 1

Q50. The heat stable taq polymerase has been extracted from:

  1. Thermophilus aquaticus
  2. Streptococcus thermophilus
  3. Staphylococcus thermophilus
  4. Thermophilus aquasticus

Ans: 1

Q51. Taq polymerase enzyme is heat stable as it can tolerate:

  1. Temperature above 80 degree Celsius
  2. Temperature above 70 degree Celsius
  3. Temperature between 50 to 60 degree Celsius
  4. Temperature above 56 degree Celsius

Ans: 1

Q52. Which of the following steps are involved in polymerase chain reaction?

  1. Denaturation — > Annealing — > Extension
  2. Denaturation — > Annealing — > Denaturaton — > extension
  3. Denaturation — > extension — > annealing — > denaturation
  4. Annealing — > denaturation — > extension — > denaturation

Ans: 1

Q53. Which of the following is true in relation to PCR?

  1. Denaturation at 90-96 degree Celsius
  2. Annealing at 50-60 degree Celsius
  3. Extension at above 70 degree Celsius
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Q54. In PCR, the oligonucleotide primer is usually:

  1. 10-18 nucleotides
  2. 20-30 nucleotides
  3. 30-40 nucleotides
  4. 50-70 nucleotides

Ans: 1

Q55. Which of the following raw materials are required for PCR technology?

  1. dNTPs
  2. Oligonucleotide primers
  3. Taq polymerase
  4. Mg+
  5. All of the above

Ans: 5

Q56. Which of the following statement is true for bioreactors?

  1. Bioreactors are apparatus in which biological reactions are carried out on larger scale
  2. The capacity of bioreactors could be 100 — 1000 liters
  3. Bioreactors provide optimum environment for the growth of recombinant cells
  4. All of the above

Ans: 4

Scroll to Top